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For PERSPECTIVES Vol. 6 No. 3 [July-September 2003] Please feel free to submit short questions or your comments. We reserve the right to answer and publish those we believe to be in the public interest. We reserve the right to use or not use submitted material (in whole or in part), to include your name, and to edit or condense your questions for clarity and space. Click here to submit a question or comment to the editor. The Rendezvous PointI was reading your article on Megiddo. I wonder, can you tell me what the word "Megiddo" means? I've never seen a definition or translation of the word anywhere. −David Ganzert Probably the closest English word is rendezvous. �Editor Much Will Be RequiredTrying to find the phrase, "To him who much is given, much is expected." Where in the Bible can I find that phrase? �Keith T. Leonard Luke 12:48 reads "From everyone who has been given much, much will be required; and to whom they entrusted much, of him they will ask all the more" (NASB). The tool at http://bible.crosswalk.com/ can help you with finding words and phrases in the Bible. --Editor Ancient Hebrew Clothing StylesI am trying to research the definite differences between the clothes worn by men and women in reference to "Thou shalt not wear what pertaineth to a man." How different was the clothing? Some say well they all wore robes, but I know there were defined differences. �Jean Wynn You refer to Deuteronomy 22:5 "A woman shall not wear man's clothing, nor shall a man put on a woman's clothing; for whoever does these things is an abomination to the LORD your God" (NASB). This verse is about 3,500 years old and refers to Late Bronze Age culture of the Hebrew people before they entered Canaan. No one really knows what the clothing styles of these Hebrews were about BCE 1400 except for the few depictions of Semitic peoples in Egyptian monuments. There are several ideas offered by scholars to identify the social policy behind the legislation. The basic notions refer to prohibitions concerning paganism and homosexuality. --Editor I would appreciate any information you could give me on the significance of the folded napkin at the tomb of Jesus. What part if any does this have with Jewish tradition? Ronny Taylor� The
sense of
John 20:7 is that the head-cloth was not lying with the other pieces
but was rolled up in a place by itself suggesting it retained the shape and the
contour of Jesus' head. In burial the cloth was wrapped about --Editor Essene Prayer?I have heard that the Essenes practiced a mikveh (is it their daily mikveh?) where the Essene entered the "living water" and with a witness prayed that God cleanse their head their heart their hands and their feet. Obviously, the Essene, if they did this, would be seeking God's cleansing of their thought life, their emotional like, their work life and the path of their life. Is there archaeological or other historical evidence that such a prayer and mikveh were part of the Essene life? �John Ferret A mikveh, a Jewish ritual bath, was a place where Jews would ceremonially purify themselves. Archaeologically, mikveh remains from the first century exist to this day. A mikveh was found near Ein Gedi presumably belonging to the Essene community there. We know nothing of the ritual liturgy you state. �Editor Feasts Parallel to Human Development?Years ago I got a fold out pamphlet with the feasts as they related to the development of a fetus. Does this sound familiar to you? I was hoping this was one of your publications and could order it from you. �Kathy Behm I am familiar with the analogy of baptism (spiritual conception) and being born into God's family with the human conception and birth. I do not recall seeing any comparison with the feasts. If you come across the item please let me know as it sounds like interesting reading. �Editor Let Us Make ManIn Genesis it says "God says let us make man in our image" - could it be that prior to the Genesis 1 creation God had made man who weren't in His image? Say, without consciousness of God, somewhat like animals. The Bible doesn't say this happened so we can't read that into the text but I was thinking it could explain scientific evidence of pre-historic man who were more like animals than modern day humans. Could they maybe be what is referred to as "the beast of the field"? Obviously, we really do need to keep the perspective that the bible is not a scientific textbook and those writing it had no frame of reference which is so common for us today. �Len Mowat You must relish controversy. The evidence of science suggests that humans have been on the earth for at least 100,000 years. Nevertheless, about 6,000 years ago the Neolithic ended and the Chalcolithic period began. The capacity for civilization was present in the humans of the Chalcolithic but it does not appear to be so with the Neolithic. If you examine the artifacts of the two periods you will quickly recognize the difference. It raises the question as to whether the children of Adam and Eve were different than other humans. �Editor On Becoming an ArcheologistI'm from India. My daughter, now aged 13 wants to be an archaeologist. She has been interested in the subject for around 6 years now. This is not a profession that is popular in India. Please let me know what subjects she should study in order to qualify for a degree course in archaeology. I would also like to know the general educational profile of a typical professional archaeologist. �Nahomi Dhinakar Biblical archaeology is a specialty in archaeology. This is one of the four major sub-fields of anthropology. To be truly successful as a biblical archaeologist one needs to go to a good university and major in anthropology with a strong background in physics, chemistry, and the biological sciences. A student should plan to go to one of the better graduate schools where he or she can pursue a master's and doctorate in anthropology with an emphasis in archaeology. The career path is university teaching and then doing archaeological research. �Editor The Last Seder Part III stumbled across your site while I was looking for information on having a Christian Passover Seder and found your article called "The Last Seder: Unscrambling the Baffling Chronology of the First Christian Passover" Part 1. I really enjoyed the article but I can't find Part 2. Could you help me find it or, preferably, e-mail me copy. It would be greatly appreciated. −Hart Simpson Part II is not fully written but we will target it for issue 7.1 (January/March 2004). �Editor First Christian Passover�Unleavened Bread Seder or Leavened Bread Supper?The link above and the accompanying chronology is fascinating and I have actually believed the Wed-Sabbath chronology for much of my life (I'm 40). The way you come to it, though, is unlike I understood it years ago, though I am now somewhat familiar with the Essene "perspective." Way to go! I am, however, disappointed with how you deal with the leavened or unleavened "bread" issue. You say "This question assumes a fact not in evidence. The word used for bread in normal parlance can refer to either leavened or unleavened bread. In the context of the Passover it would have to be unleavened bread as Torah requires it. The Essenes were Torah compliant in their Seder except for the Pascal lamb itself." I think you need to offer some proof for the statement, "The word used for bread in normal parlance can refer to either leavened or unleavened bread. " I have heard this line before and seen it based on nothing. The Gospel writers and Paul were unquestionably familiar with "azumos" - the word the LXX translators consistently use to translate the Hebrew "matzah" - and in fact use it themselves. So why wouldn't they use it for the "institution" or the celebration of the "Eucharist"? It's almost as if they avoid using it for that. Is it possible that this was simply an earlier - possibly still meatless, due to lack of sacrificing of lamb ability so long before the afternoon of Nisan 14 - passover, due to some differing customs among the different sects as to when you could have the meal? �Lindsey Killian I was actually shown Luke 24:30 recently - where Jesus "breaks bread (artos)" shortly after his resurrection - meaning that it had to be during the days of unleavened bread, and therefore meaning that artos (in my mind) does not need to mean leavened bread. So my objection has been answered. I enjoyed reading your research in your paper titled �The Last Seder: Unscrambling the Baffling Chronology of the First Christian Passover� and I have some questions that are unanswered by the evidence you have presented. The two issues are: 1) the belief that this was a Seder and 2) the evidence that the bread was unleavened. I do agree with the evidence and research that the Last Supper was on the eve of Nisan 14, our Tuesday, and that the Essene community was involved. I do however propose that this was not a Seder meal, but a meal eaten on the preparation days preceding the Seder meal. Yes, I believe that the preparations were for likely for an Essene Seder to take place on Nisan 14, but this meeting is not recorded. The evidence lies in the fact that every reference to these events show that the word used for bread was a word used for leavened bread and not Pesach. Even the Essenes would have used unleavened bread, if this were a Seder. There is no other explanation than that this was not a Seder. There is much other data to support this. Some of which is in your article, but is overlooked. If Jesus ate a preparation day evening meal and this is the Last Supper, then he would have been crucified on the same day and time as the temple lambs, 3pm on Wednesday, Nisan 14 (Unleavened Bread). He would have died at the exact time of the sacrifice completion 6pm Wednesday Nisan 14, in time to place him in the tomb before the special annual Sabbath, Nisan 15, beginning that evening at sundown. This would have put Jesus in the tomb for a complete three days, which would be over on the evening of Saturday at sundown, beginning Nisan 18 (First fruits). The women approaching the tomb would have arrived very early Sunday morning. There is no baffling chronology, other than the miss-interpretation of time frame due to our not understanding the spring festival order and historical Jewishness of the situation. −Gary Hoffman The Torah forbids leaven in offerings to God (cf Exodus 23:18; 34:25; Leviticus 2:11; 6:17; et al.). During the seven-day religious festival of Passover, technically the Feast Unleavened Bread, the unleavened bread became symbolic of Israel's deliverance from Egyptian slavery. Israelite authorities expelled, or excommunicated from the community of Israel, anyone who ate leavened bread during the Days of Unleavened Bread (Exodus 12:15-20; 13:7). If you look at Luke 24:30 Jesus "breaks bread (artos)" shortly after his resurrection - meaning that it had to be during the days of unleavened bread, and therefore showing that artos (Luke 22:19) does not need to mean leavened bread. There was no time to leaven bread for this meal and it would have violated the Torah for the two Jews (presumably a husband and wife) inviting Jesus into their home to dine to have leavened bread in their possession. The article is in the context of the Essene Passover. As the Essene Passover Sabbath began at sundown Tuesday night the guesthouse would have been unleavened as required by the Mosaic code. For Jesus and his followers to take the Passover meal there they would have had to conform with the traditional Essene Passover meal (meatless). We know of no authority that would suggest that the Essene Passover involved leavened bread. For them the date was Nisan 15 (Essene Calendar) not Nisan 14 (Priestly Calendar). The theory set forth in the article dealt with the only known group of Jews that always kept the Passover beginning on a Tuesday night (when their Passover Sabbath began). One could not under the Mosaic Code use leavened bread for Passover. If Jesus' meal was not a Passover meal then that issue goes away. But we are told in the Gospels that this was the Passover. So we are right back to the point where scholars have given up on reconciling the chronology. Our attempt at Father Bargil Pizner's suggestion was to develop a reconciliation of the chronology. Since the Old Covenant ended at Jesus' death what Christian praxis should or should not be in regard to observing the Eucharist or communion in this 21st century we leave to others. The approach in this research is falsification. The explanation given in the article comes from the evidence extant. There is no guesswork nor attempt to prove anything. Modification of the model is by falsification. �Editor
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